| Topic: | Re:Re:Re:Re:Re:Survey: your thoughts about this please. | |
| Posted by: | James Petri | |
| Date/Time: | 15/02/15 20:25:00 |
| Hi Bobby, Whilst it is indeed a matter that relates directly to the work of economists I feel that they are not the right people to decide what certain words mean. After all, if you are trying to communicate with someone you must communicate in their language if you want them to understand you, or at least give them an explanation in their language of what you mean. I would guess that anyone who has learnt from their school lessons between about 1820 and 1975 would understand that a reduction of 4.3 to 1.6 (whether it be policemen, goals or per cent) has got to be in excess of 50% if only because 1.6 is less than half of 4.3, although 1.6 is indeed 2.7 percentage POINTS less than 4.3. It is because 1.6 is so dramatically more than 2.7 PER CENT less than 4.3 that I have raised this subject. The correct answer to one decimal place is that it is 62.8% less which is very different to 2.7%. |